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Adjectives ending -ant seem to have a 50/50 chance of ending -ancy or -ance in noun form. Same goes for -ent adjectives into -ency or -ence nouns. Is there a rule that determines which?

Random examples:

  • bouyant becomes bouyancy
  • exuberant becomes exuberance
  • potent becomes potency
  • impotent becomes impotence
  • brilliant becomes brilliance
  • ascendant becomes ascendancy

I have the feeling that the noun takes the -ancy form when it denotes a quality which has degrees, whereas the -ance form is more common when the quality is binary (e.g., drugs having varying levels of potency, but men are impotent or they are not). However, there are certainly some counterexamples (e.g., importance).

The reason I am asking this peculiar question: in mathematical jargon, the words nilpotency and nilpotence are both somewhat common. I want to know if it's reasonable to use the two words in slightly different ways. I haven't thought of an ordinary word for which both noun forms are used (possibly with different meanings), so probably I should pick one and stick with it.

This question is related but about -ance vs -ence: Is there a rule for “‑ance” vs. “‑ence”?

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    No. Words are not processed in batches in English, but individually. Every word has its own unique history. Consequently there is no uniformity, merely centuries of craftmanship. – John Lawler Jul 28 '21 at 23:17
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    I think abundant, ascendant/ascendent and transcendent can take either ending, but the meanings of their -nce and -ncy forms are the same. While elegancy seems to be used in the US, here in the UK only elegance will do. According to the Journals of the House of Commons, "Godfrid van Ittern did this day (6/11/1667) take the Oath of Allegiancy and Supremacy before the speaker", but we seem to prefer allegiance these days. Abundancy and deviancy are both less popular than their -nce forms, yet necromance - briefly popular in the 1800's - seems more or less dead. – Old Brixtonian Jul 29 '21 at 02:26

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