verbs (or infinitives) as objective?

Asked Nov 20 '21 at 15:20

Active Nov 20 '21 at 15:20

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I / want / to sleep.
We / used / to swim.
You / agreed / to leave.
He / quitted / smoking.
She / deserves / to win.
They / had / to go.

Is it correct to assume that those sentences have 'subject - (transitive) verb - objective' structure? Which could even be turned into passive voice? (though no one would actually do it)

If not, how should these sentences be analyzed?

asked Nov 20 '21 at 15:20

Thunderweb

'Used to' and 'have [got] to' are semi-modals. See Alternatives for passive forms with semi-modals. – Edwin Ashworth Nov 20 '21 at 15:36
1

Does this answer the bulk of your question/s? When should a verb be followed by a gerund instead of an infinitive? ////Are the infinitives that follow catenative verbs considered objects? should. – Edwin Ashworth Nov 20 '21 at 15:37
No: These are all catenative constructions, where the infinitival subordinate clauses are not objects but complements of the head verbs, "want", "used", "agreed" etc. Note, though, that "smoking" in "He quit smoking" is strictly speaking ambiguous between a verb and a noun (thus an object), though verb in a catenative construction preferred. – BillJ Nov 20 '21 at 16:42

verbs (or infinitives) as objective?

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