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Please consider the following sentence:

When cars collide, it creates a debris hazard on the road.

In a debate, I claimed the sentence is ungrammatical because the pronoun "it" has no antecedent. However, I was unable to find a rule in my 12th edition of the Gregg Reference Manual for "dangling pronouns."

The only noun in evidence is "cars," so the antecedent of "it" could, implicitly, be any one of the cars. The adverbial clause "when cars collide" could imply an instant in time, and "it" might refer to that time. However, I know of no rule that permits an adverbial clause to function as a noun.

Much more likely is that "it" refers to an implicit "collision," but there is no structure in that sentence that could even remotely serve as a concrete antecedent meaning "collision."

I lost my argument because I was unable to produce a grammar rule that disallowed the sentence. My opponent claimed that the meaning is clear. The meaning's being clear is a straw man, of course, irrelevant to the question whether the sentence is ungrammatical, but I lost the debate on votes.

My questions are, precisely:

  1. Is the sentence ungrammatical?
  2. If so, can one cite a rule that's violated?
  3. Can an adverbial clause function as a noun, and thus as the antecedent to a pronoun like "it?"
  4. If so, can one cite a rule allowing an adverbial clause to function as a noun? (ironic aside: I almost wrote "can one cite a rule allowing it," causing a nested instance of this very question).
Reb.Cabin
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    It's a grey area. I'd use "... the collision creates a debris hazard." And the setup is so common, and I can do better, it's not worth fighting. – Yosef Baskin Mar 03 '22 at 19:19
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    ... Yes. English often uses deletions, with retrievable subjects say, but this sort of example ('it' = 'the collision'? 'the occurrence'? 'the incident'?) is borderline acceptable/slang. – Edwin Ashworth Mar 03 '22 at 19:27
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    "I just drove for eight hours. It was horrible." What is it? – Andy Bonner Mar 03 '22 at 20:18
  • @AndyBonner It is a different construction is what it is. – Phil Sweet Mar 03 '22 at 20:20
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    @PhilSweet Is it, though? I have no firm answer to this question (or else I'd give it), but seems to me we leave the antecedent implied by context all the time. "[The experience of driving 8 hrs] was horrible"; "[the collision] creates debris." Maybe this even gets into that nebulous existential "it" of "What time is it?" and "You look sad—what is it?" – Andy Bonner Mar 03 '22 at 20:29
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    Having no antecedent doesn't make a sentence ungrammatical. The it in It's a long way to Tipperary has no referent, but it's not ungrammatical. Grammaticality is not caused by reference manuals, even Gregg. Grammaticality is what happens when people talk and understand without noticing what they're saying. – John Lawler Mar 03 '22 at 20:32
  • @JohnLawler good points. I may be oversensitive because I write technical manuals and have found by experience that users will take any and every opportunity to misinterpret the slightest ambiguity. It's been my mission to drive out such opportunities. Regarding "... understand without noticing ...," I've found that chasing ambiguous pronouns is a chief cause of people's having to read sentences more than once, and that's a cause of user dislike :) – Reb.Cabin Mar 03 '22 at 21:17
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    "When nations go to war it is seldom for the righting of real wrongs, but on some trivial pretext like..." F. Ober; History for Young Readers--Spain. How else should one continue other than with it? "When nations go to war the going to war is..." ??? – DjinTonic Mar 03 '22 at 21:27
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    @DjinTonic I've found that pronouns cause war :) – Reb.Cabin Mar 03 '22 at 21:31
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    I don't agree with the close vote--the question whether this is always opinion based or has limits or guiding principles (ambiguity?) is IMO a valid one. – DjinTonic Mar 03 '22 at 21:41
  • @DjinTonic You could rewrite that as "Nations' going to war is seldom for . . ." which is actually a bit more concise than the original. The original is certainly more colloquial, though. – MarcInManhattan Mar 03 '22 at 21:45
  • "This is what it sounds like... when doves cry" – Andy Bonner Mar 03 '22 at 21:52
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    First of all, ELU is concerned with usage, and there can be no rules to permit or prohibit usage. The question Is whether it is 'standard' English usage. Well, it is not inconsistent with it. Break them into two sentences. "Two/several cars collided. It created a débris hazard on the road." It not uncommon for a whole proposition/fact/event to be referred to by a singular preposition. "About thirty people tried to get on the metro at the same time and this caused several injuries. You could omit 'this', of course, but you can include it also. The meaning of the singular is obvious. – Tuffy Mar 03 '22 at 21:53
  • @MarcInManhattan Of course, but that particular rewrite seems less fluent to my ears, and I don't see why one should need to rewrite: English has evolved to give us a good amount of flexibility. IMO "When cars collide it creates..." ,"Cars colliding creates..". "The collision of cars creates..." – DjinTonic Mar 03 '22 at 21:57
  • @DjinTonic I agree completely. – MarcInManhattan Mar 03 '22 at 22:01
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    I'd say that "it" has "when cars collide" as antecedent. We understand that the collision of cars causes a debris hazard on the road. – BillJ Mar 04 '22 at 10:33
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    @Reb.Cabin The issue isn't pronouns, the issue is one of context switching. You're taking rules for one context and trying to apply them to other contexts. Basically, the cooperative principle: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cooperative_principle You're considering the fourth part, "be clear", but ignoring the first part--provide exactly as much information as required, not more nor less. If prescribing medicine, "take 2 25mg pills every morning" is correct. If talking to your mother, "Please put five 30-gram ice cubes in my drink." is not correct, it should be "May I have some ice, please?" – user3067860 Mar 07 '22 at 13:17

2 Answers2

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I believe you have a simple case of the “dummy it” here. It doesn’t have an antecedent; it’s not meant to refer to anything.

Surely you would buy this as grammatical:

It’s bad when cars collide. (What’s bad when cars collide?)

And therefore this:

When cars collide, it’s bad.

Let’s try your sentence:

It creates a debris hazard on the road when cars collide. (What creates a debris hazard on the road when cars collide?)

When cars collide, it creates a debris hazard on the road.

We do this all the time. You can find some relevant results for when NOUN+ VERB , it VERB at the Corpus of Contemporary American English. (Click ALL FORMS (SAMPLE): 500 after the results appear to expand the examples.)

Here are a few spotted there:

And when Bruce surfaced, it surprised pretty much everyone.

When people meditate, it brings a certain sense of peace onto the campus that trickles out to other people.

When storms hit, it affects the righteous as well as the unrighteous.

When people volunteer, it helps their souls, it helps them socially, it helps them in business, and it helps the community.

Here are some the other way around it VERB NOUN+ when NOUN+:

It bothered Jerry when people acted strangely.

When you connect with a person and they say they’ll call you back, it produces anxiety when you realize (you’re) going to be gone for three days.

It made headlines when the most powerful member of the U.S. Senate clobbered America’s media giants.

She could see it angered Thang when Roi called her that, and Grandma's face would tighten whenever she heard Roi's callous laughter at Na's misfortune.

All that said, I think your sentence would sound better with a passive construction:

When cars collide, a debris hazard is created on the road.

Tinfoil Hat
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  • In "And when Bruce surfaced, it surprised pretty much everyone." isn't "when Bruce surfaced" the antecedent of "it". Since there's not a strict requirement for the antecedent to actually precede the pronoun, the converse could be interpreted the same way. "And it surprised pretty much everyone, when Bruce surfaced." It seems a matter of interpretation/opinion though. – Stuart F Mar 04 '22 at 12:45
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    @StuartF: I would call it an anticipatory it (antecedent) if it were used in this sense: It surprised everyone when Bruce surfaced. --> When Bruce surfaced surprised everyone. (They were surprised about the timing.) I would call it a dummy it if it were used in this sense: It surprised everyone when Bruce surfaced. --> When Bruce surfaced, it surprised everyone. --> (They were surprised that he surfaced.) Of course, with these being identical in form, you would need context to figure out what is meant. – Tinfoil Hat Mar 04 '22 at 17:28
  • When cars collide, it (the collision) creates a debris hazard on the road. -- And when Bruce surfaced, it (the act of surfacing) surprised pretty much everyone. -- When storms hit, it (the storm's striking) affects the righteous as well as the unrighteous. – Greybeard Mar 07 '22 at 17:14
  • @Greybeard: Yes, that is what is understood, but you had to make up nouns (the collision, the storm's striking, the act of surfacing) to give it an antecedent. Those aren't actually in the sentences. – Tinfoil Hat Mar 07 '22 at 18:27
  • @TinfoilHat I see this as a valid referent by implication - The NPs are the action via the nominalised adverbial. – Greybeard Mar 08 '22 at 12:28
  • @TinfoilHat nice examples up there highlighting the ambiguity between anticipatory and dummy. In my applications (technical documentation) such ambiguities generate calls or emails to customer service and cost time, money, energy, fossil fuels, and, ultimately, the lives of baby seals :) – Reb.Cabin Mar 09 '22 at 16:25
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It doesn't need a clear antecedent to be grammatical.

Many prescriptive grammar guides would consider that statement wrong. For instance, Towson University's Online Writing Support on "Usage - Pronoun Reference" says

A pronoun should refer clearly to one, clear, unmistakable noun coming before the pronoun. This noun is called the pronoun’s antecedent.

Then the site gives examples of "Errors" including too many antecedents, hidden antecedents, and no antecedents.

However, this approach addresses style rather than grammar. The site makes stylistic recommendations because students will often write sentences with confusing pronoun usage without any way to point or otherwise suggest what the pronoun refers to. Editors may impose such rules for similar reasons, avoiding bad writing by a blanket ban on usage likely to be misused. However, in terms of functional grammar (whether one understands what was just said or written without much thought), sometimes pronouns don't need antecedents to function well. For instance:

Mark called Mary's house all day, but she never answered the phone.

Absent some special context, she refers to Mary. There is no major issue with understanding that she refers to "Mary" rather than "Mary's house" or just "Mary's." Thus the sentence functions grammatically, despite the stylistic rule that Towson imposed.

Your example functions similarly. Most readers or listeners understand the sentence, including it, without much effort.

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    So @Reb.Cabin, you lose your argument if based on "grammaticality," but one could fabricate a scenario in which the pronoun is unwise and creates ambiguity. "This is the new robot model. Most of the time it's well behaved, but there are bugs. Whenever there's a big solar flare, it causes a lot of trouble for us." The solar flare poses trouble? Or the robot becomes troublesome? But as noted, these are issues of "style and usage"—i.e. smart writing—not grammar. – Andy Bonner Mar 03 '22 at 21:58
  • It has a long pedigree of ambiguity. I remember a Lit. course exercise where we had to give the antecedents for a good number of Its in a single passage by Joyce. Quite a few were ambiguous. – DjinTonic Mar 03 '22 at 22:00
  • @AndyBonner Yes, easy to do: When I finally revealed her secret, it caused a huge commotion. The secret or the fact that I revealed it? – DjinTonic Mar 03 '22 at 22:04
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    @AndyBonner Nice examples. I must fight ambiguity all the time, at the risk of stilted writing. You would not believe the cunning ways that readers have of misinterpreting even carefully crafted technical material. I often do a pass over my own writing, driving out pronouns the way the Scots drove out the Vikings. – Reb.Cabin Mar 03 '22 at 22:11
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    @DjinTonic LOL—clarifying Joyce sounds like a sisyphean punishment. Perhaps Joyce himself is at it even now. – Andy Bonner Mar 03 '22 at 22:13
  • @DjinTonic I remember a "perpetual seminar" on Finnegan's Wake at uni. – Reb.Cabin Mar 04 '22 at 01:24
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    Like Summarizing Proust, Clarifying Joyce is a common competitive sport in England. – John Lawler Mar 04 '22 at 04:11
  • No editor is ever going to enforce that made up rule. If we give the Towson University author the benefit if the doubt, what they are angling at is that in good academic writing a pronoun's antecedent shouldn't be ambiguous. If it is, you should re-write (clarity is everything in academic writing). The University writer has just forgotten/glossed over that 1) not all pronouns have antecedents and 2) that when they do, the antecedents aren't always noun(phrase)s. – Araucaria - Him Mar 04 '22 at 11:29
  • So Towson University opposes "it is raining"? – Yuval Filmus Mar 04 '22 at 12:03
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    @JohnLawler: Haha! Clarifying Finnegans Wake is a *blood* sport! Leaving many of those who survive the experience in a permanent state of post-traumatic stress disorder! – FumbleFingers Mar 04 '22 at 13:05
  • @FF Hmm. They say it's not as bad as they say it is. – Edwin Ashworth Mar 05 '22 at 17:50