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Just curious: While using contractions like you're or isn't, if there are two possible ways a word can be contracted, what is the order of precedence? Say, for example, the sentence is "you are not allowed to do this." Will it be better to say "you aren't" or "you're not"?

Is there an order of precedence or are both equally correct, or does it depend on the particular situation?

Can triple contractions, like "'tisn't" for "it is not", be used?

See Also: question

haven't is much preferred to I've not. (The Longman student grammar of spoken and written English, 2002: 242). They haven't finished is more common than They've not finished (Greenbaum 1992: 684 in The Oxford companion to the English language)

How does one know when to use which, and would it be 'wrong' to use the other possible contraction?

  • the author also mentions that 'A rule of thumb is that "when be contraction is possible, it is strongly favored over not contraction" (LGSWE). The authors of the Longman grammar also argue that "this preference is particularly strong with first- and second-person pronouns."' – Raghavendra Singh May 16 '22 at 04:58
  • You're not allowed... and You aren't allowed... are very similar. The obvious ambiguity - is it just me who isn't allowed or is nobody allowed - can be made clear by intonation using either version. That said, the first makes it easy to be clear that a universal prohibition exists, and the second that the prohibition applies specifically to you. – Dan May 16 '22 at 11:36
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    The only triple contraction I can hear myself using and would write is wouldn't've. couldn't've, shouldn't've. I guess I often say 'tisn't but I don't think I'd write it (except in fictional dialogue). – Dan May 16 '22 at 11:41
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    @Dan True, but that's not strictly a contraction, its just the weak form of auxiliaryhave i.e. /əv/ or even /v/. It's still an independent word it just sounds like that! – Araucaria - Him May 16 '22 at 12:02
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. I think I get it. It's not 'Better t've loved and lost than never t've loved at all' is it? – Dan May 17 '22 at 13:47
  • @Dan Prezackerly so. – Araucaria - Him May 17 '22 at 21:12

1 Answers1

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First, I want to respond to the comment on the question, that was added by OP. The other answer does not say that "when contraction is possible, it is strongly favored over not contraction" Rather, the quote from the Longman Grammar is given in support of the very specific context of whether:

I've not

is preferable to

I haven't

Use of contractions is not preferred. It may even be discouraged in written English. It depends on the audience and the tone of the writing; however, single contractions are very common in spoken English.

No, there isn't a rule about order of precedence in contractions.

Yes, usage does depend on the particular situation and meaning to be conveyed.

Double contractions are used colloquially. They are much more common in the language as spoken, rather than as written. This is true for both American and British English. Here's a list of double contractions via BBC Learning English.

Here's BBC Learning English emphasizing the importance of NOT using double contractions, in its Stop Saying That series!

So a double contraction is when we make three words into something shorter in spoken English. I would have becomes I'd've and could not have becomes couldn't've. They're quite common in spoken English but not used very often in written English. They might be used for informal communication, but Helen recommends you don't use them for a job application!


Contraction vs Elision

The question title mentions elision. I want to clarify the difference between the two words. Contraction is a general term for combining two words to make one short word. Elision is a specific term for omitting sounds or syllables, and replacing them with an apostrophe.

Elision happens a lot at the ends of words. For example, shortening “fallen” to “fall’n” and “tired” to “tir’d.” Elision occurs in the middle of words, as well. For example, changing “every” to “ev’ry” or “never” to “ne’r.” Elision is used to deliberately maintain a rhyming scheme, say in iambic pentameter, i.e. as a literary device.

There isn't a lot of elision in modern English communication, written or spoken, although there was in pre-21st century English literature and poetry. There still is, sometimes, depending on the prose writer or poet's preference regarding tone.

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    The BBC website there has just made it easier for themselves and rather than explaining that untsressed auxiliary have has a weak form /əv/ have said that have can be contracted. This isn't the case. English does not allow true double contractions. Elision in the study of languages is not about punctuation, btw, but about the loss of sounds. See this website here – Araucaria - Him May 16 '22 at 12:00
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. The British Council website says: "Elision is the omission of sounds, syllables or words in speech. This is done to make the language easier to say, and faster. Elision is an important area in listening skills, as learners are often unable to hear elided words correctly, especially if they have little contact with native speakers." That agrees with Thought Co. There's also this meaning via Wikipedia, as I mentioned, see both Contractions and In poetry sections. – Ellie Kesselman May 16 '22 at 12:11
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. I don't have an issue with entirely deleting that section if you think I am wrong. I think it is possible that we are both correct, as there are two different meanings for elision. – Ellie Kesselman May 16 '22 at 12:13
  • I think it would be fine to mention both :) – Araucaria - Him May 16 '22 at 12:14
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    @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. Good idea. I will edit to do so, in a few minutes. Thank you. – Ellie Kesselman May 16 '22 at 12:15
  • 'Elision' has been dealt with on ELU before. I was using 'elide' in the looser sense; J Lawler picked up on this and mentioned that the tighter, loss-of-sound only sense is more helpfully held to on a site like ELU (aimed at linguists). // 'No, there isn't a rule about order of precedence in [choosing between different available] contractions.' gets to the heart of the title question, but needs supporting references / data. OP's research provides some, though I'd argue that 'They've not finished' rivals 'They haven't finished' in currency in colloquial unmarked speech in NW England. – Edwin Ashworth May 16 '22 at 14:05
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    As for "English doesn't allow double contractions", that may apply to UK Englishes; I wouldn't know. But I often heard people say things like I should'ven't in the United States. We love those clonsonant custers. – John Lawler May 16 '22 at 15:38
  • @JohnLawler Interesting. That last one's definitely impossible in standard British. Not would have to be stressed there. – Araucaria - Him May 17 '22 at 20:49
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. Confused again... Does 've count as a contraction in should'ven't but not in shouldn't've? – Dan May 17 '22 at 23:36
  • @Dan No. My comment to John was really just about that last not. The word not gets contracted into /nt/ and combined with preceding auxiliaries (or, depending on your take on the grammar, auxiliaries have a negatively inflected form). So you get have not--> haven't and is not --> isn't and so forth (but it still normally results in an extra syllable). But either the not or the contracted negative auxiliary must be stressed. If it's stressed it can't be contracted with a preceding pronoun and must have a full vowel. Hence you can't have I'ven't etc. – Araucaria - Him May 18 '22 at 00:08
  • @Dan But in "shouldn't've" the notional 've is just the normal weak form of have. – Araucaria - Him May 18 '22 at 00:17
  • In fact the notional 've is justa schwa. "Shouldna", with two to three syllables and optional inflatable nasal, is something like the US norm. – John Lawler May 18 '22 at 01:14
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    @JohnLawler - '"shouldna" in the US; "shouldnuv" pretty widely heard in UK ;-) – Dan May 18 '22 at 09:51
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    @JohnLawler Similar to UK English. The shouldn't doesn't require a /t/ and the have can just be /ə/, or after a vowel, just /v/. (Hence Dan's "shouldnuv") – Araucaria - Him May 18 '22 at 23:53