How do you differentiate:
I'd always longed to see... = I would always longed to see...
VS
I'd always longed to see.. = I had always longed to see..
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1Not the same: I'd always long to see... = I would always long to see... If the same, more context will reveal the full story. – Yosef Baskin Sep 20 '22 at 22:32
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I would always longed is meaningless, so it can't mean that. – Kate Bunting Sep 21 '22 at 07:30
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Most people unpack If I'd have* lost you, I don't know what I would have done* as *If I would have lost you..., but I'm by no means the only person who thinks of it as If I had have lost you...* – FumbleFingers Sep 21 '22 at 10:55
2 Answers
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Both the auxiliary verbs would and had contract to 'd, usually with pronoun subjects: he'd, I'd, you'd, she'd, it'd, they'd, we'd. Whether spoken or written, you can't tell which one it is, if you only have the contraction.
But you can tell the difference if you notice what comes next.
Like all auxiliary verbs, each of these must be followed by a particular verb form.
- Would, like all modal auxiliary verbs, must be followed by an Infinitive verb form:
I would always love to stand on the beach (not *loved).
= I'd always love to stand on the beach - Have is the auxiliary for the Perfect, and takes a Past Participle verb form:
I had always loved to stand on the beach (not *love).
= I'd always loved to stand on the beach
John Lawler
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In similar uses, the meaning is realized. But generally, it is known what use it is as a structure. For example, "Would" is usually used with the perfect infinitive (have + past participle), while "Had" is used with the past participle.
In your example, the sentence with had seems correct. Because it should be used as "would always v1".
karacay
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