To the extent that I understand what the poster means by parallelism, this is maintained in the example as “there is” can be applied to “lack of incentive”, “dictatorial government” (dictatorship?) and “corruption”.
However, by posting, the poster implies that he feels there is a problem with his sentence. There is. The problem is that there is no grammatical — and hence logical — connection between what I shall rename “Xism” (better, I think, to depoliticize on a language list) and “there is”. Once one tries to make a connection one is forced to think more carefully about the arguments relating the ism to its consequences or features.
The simple fix is to write:
“Xism” does not work because it means…
However this immediately betrays the fact that the statement is not an argument, but an assertion, on a par with:
What is Capitalism? Capitalism is theft!
If one wishes to use logic in one’s argument (a stupid suggestion, I know) then for each argument one needs to consider the appropriate verb to use to express the relationship between the ism and its purported consequences. Thus, the first assertion could be rephrased:
“Xism does not work because in an Xist system people lack incentive"
The second assertion requires different phrasing; something on the lines of:
“Xism does not work because it generally leads to a dictatorship”
which can also be used for the third assertion:
“Xism does not work because it generally leads to widespread corruption”
So it is difficult in this case to maintain parallelism and linguistic logic.
But, hell, this is politics.