This is related to the question that I asked in English language and usage community: about whether there is a dialectal difference among the native English speakers in pronouncing the u of words like unitary/uniform as [u] or as [ju] (more generally - a purely vowel sound vs. [j] + vowel.) This is ultimately related to using article a/an before the word.
It was claimed by several users in the comments that pronunciation without [j] is necessarily a mark of a non-native speaker. I am wondering whether this is indeed the case or, if we are dealing with dialectal differences. I personally believe to have seen forms like "a + unitary/uniform* in texts written by natives. So it boils down to anecdotal evidence vs. anecdotal evidence. Are there linguistic/statistical data to judge one way or the other?