1

"Didn't you have a lecture today?" vs "You didn't have a lecture today?"

Regarding the aforementioned clauses, from "experience", I can surmise different, subtle nuances. When I was taught English, the "grammatical construction" would be the former example.

  1. "Didn't you have a lecture today?": Why are you here [to my dismay]? I thought you had a lecture today.

  2. "You didn't have a lecture today?": You are here [to my surprise/I was wrong]! I thought you had a lecture today.

What would be the grammatical explanations for these different nuances?

Even though this post could be considered similar to Asking questions without subject-verb inversion — a new trend?, the difference is regarding the presence or absence of subject-verb inversion, not about whether such constructions are valid grammatically or colloquially accepted, or whether they have the same meaning. In both case, there exists do-support, so that is irrelevant. Does appending a question mark to a declarative sentence result in a valid sentence?, indeed, asks about appending a question mark, but in the context of whether it is a valid construction, not the -potential- difference in meaning.

ARGYROU MINAS
  • 244
  • 1
    One is a question for information, and one is a statement ending with a bit of wonder. Perhaps a rhetorical one. – Yosef Baskin May 05 '23 at 23:24
  • It broaches a similar issue but not quite the same. Moreover, I hope for more "opinions"/answers as the answer on the linked question didn't satiate my curiosity :P. Definitely, there are new trends in the use of language but, in my case, I would like for the "formal"/proper version. – ARGYROU MINAS May 05 '23 at 23:38
  • They both have Do-Support; that's where the did comes from. Where they differ is that one inverts a y/n question, and the other doesn't, using the y/n intonation to signal a question. Do-Support is required here because of the negative, not the question. – John Lawler May 05 '23 at 23:56
  • @JohnLawler In both cases, there is the interrogative "signal" (either through the inversion or through intonation). But, according to my understanding and experience, the nuances are different for the examples provided. This questions isn't just based on whether this is acceptable or a new trend. – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 00:03
  • If you believe that there might be a difference in meaning (even if it's subtle), then you should indicate why you believe so. "I can surmise different, subtle nuances" is not a strong reason, in my opinion. (Without further context, I can't identify any semantic difference between your two examples.) – MarcInManhattan May 06 '23 at 00:28
  • @MarcInManhattan I have studied English since 13 and watched movies in English, interacted with people in English through several exchange programmes, etc. The "subtle nuances" I am referring too has been my experience through my 14-year-spanning interactions. Uncontestedly, the traditional rules regarding grammar prescribe for Do-support and subject-verb inversion in interrogatives (questions) yet, in recent times, interrogatives (questions) without subject-verb inversions became accepted in everyday speech (although, I am not sure whether there is grammatical backing/acceptance); my post – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 01:11
  • attempts to disambiguate the difference, if there exists one, between interrogatives (questions) that include and that do no include the subject-verb inversion. – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 01:12
  • I think your question about meaning is valid. However, both of your examples use do-support. Can you edit your question to remove ...the difference is regarding the different in meanings of using or not "Do-support"? – Tinfoil Hat May 06 '23 at 01:43
  • Never mind; I fixed the title. – John Lawler May 06 '23 at 01:50
  • @JohnLawler There have been edits almost at the same time. Is there an agreement as to the edits on this question? – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 01:53
  • @TinfoilHat ^ Same as above. – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 01:54
  • I just changed the title; that's the only thing most people will ever see. – John Lawler May 06 '23 at 02:01
  • @ARGYROUMINAS In my opinion, your second example sentence could also indicate dismay, while the first could also indicate surprise or being wrong. I hope that others understand the distinction that you're making better than I do. – MarcInManhattan May 06 '23 at 04:37
  • Does this answer your question? Does appending a question mark to a declarative sentence result in a valid sentence? – Edwin Ashworth May 06 '23 at 11:31
  • @EdwinAshworth That question, indeed, asks about appending a question mark, but in the context of whether it is a valid construction, not the -potential- difference in meaning. – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 12:02
  • Ah, I think your questions are essentially 'Is there an obvious time when declarative questions became (a) fairly normal in speech and (b) considered acceptable ('standard')? And can the adoption of the declarative form as a question be explained syntactically?' // There is the statement that 'Are all Elbonians lazy?' and 'All Elbonians are lazy?' are non-equivalent: the latter needs clear prior licensing context. – Edwin Ashworth May 06 '23 at 13:28
  • @EdwinAshworth Pretty much, yeah; with the addition of whether those two example can be considered equivalent or whether they have -subtly- different meanings. – ARGYROU MINAS May 06 '23 at 15:42
  • Isn't the significant - and only real - difference simply that 'Didn't you have a lecture today?' might start a conversation but 'You didn't have a lecture today?' should not?

    Either could be a response and both arise from the same situation, in which the speaker's assumption that the (student?) had a lecture has somehow been put in doubt.

     – Robbie Goodwin Sep 13 '23 at 15:54

0 Answers0