So, I know that after modal verbs, the bare infinitive or base form of a verb is used according to Oxford ("Modal verbs are followed by the infinitive of another verb without to. The exceptions are ought to, have to and used to.), but why is that? Just got curious.
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2Does this answer your question? Why do these verbs take bare infinitives? [J Lawler gives thoughts on the reason modals and some other verbs license bare infinitives). – Edwin Ashworth Dec 10 '23 at 15:03
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Actually, yes. I didn't see that post, thanks. – Sunless Dec 10 '23 at 15:09
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@ZueiraproductionsBr Please note that the verbs are just "ought", "have" and "use"' The "to" is a subordinator, part of the clause that is complement to them, e.g. "I used [to smoke]". – BillJ Dec 11 '23 at 09:42