Is there any difference in meaning in the sentence "he doesn't have a house in which to sleep" and "he doesn't have a house to sleep in"

Asked Feb 12 '24 at 22:58

Active Feb 12 '24 at 23:02

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Is the first sentence even grammatically correct? It just sounds weird to me.

edited Feb 12 '24 at 23:02

KillingTime

asked Feb 12 '24 at 22:58

Eduardozzz

1

Does this answer your question? When is it appropriate to end a sentence in a preposition? The first variant here is grammatical, but sounds rather formal (and other such sentences can sound very rarefied). The second is the usual way this is expressed. People saying it is incorrect are incorrect. // There is no difference in meaning. – Edwin Ashworth Feb 13 '24 at 00:02
Yes, it's fine. In your second example, the infinitival relative clause modifies "house". The meaning is modal, comparable to the finite "He doesn't have a house [he can sleep in]". Your first example is fine,though a touch formal. – BillJ Feb 13 '24 at 12:15

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