Why are some words pronounced as though their letters were reversed?
For example, why is bible pronounced “buy-bel” and not “bib-lee”, or Favre pronounced “far-vuh” and not “fav-rah”?
Why are some words pronounced as though their letters were reversed?
For example, why is bible pronounced “buy-bel” and not “bib-lee”, or Favre pronounced “far-vuh” and not “fav-rah”?
Bible is not pronounced with “reversed letters”: the e is silent. Words like rhythm, acre, centre, bible, bottle, little, button all simply have syllabic consonants. For example:
[ˈbaɪbɫ̩][ˈlɪtɫ̩][ˈfɑvɹ̩][ˈeɪkɹ̩]sɛntɹ̩][ˈbʌtn̩][ˈiːvn̩][ˈɔːfɫ̩][ˈɹɪðm̩]Those all have two syllables, and all without a vowel in the second syllable. The consonants are acting as the syllabic center, which makes them fundamentally vowel-behaving, normally called syllabic consonants.
If you are talking about why some people will (“mis‑”)pronounce words like cavalry as calvary, or for that matter croqueta as corqueta, please see metathesis.
/ʁ/, although a variety of other allophones can occur dialectally. “Selon le locuteur, [ʁ] peut être remplacé par [χ], [ʀ], [x], [ɣ], [r] ou [ɾ]. Ce phénomène s’appelle variation allophonique.” from here. See also here.
– tchrist
Aug 08 '12 at 20:00
[r] the way a Spaniard does, and those that do are more often found down towards Marseilles. [ʁ] is uvular, not alveolar. And it isn’t a flap, warble, trill, whoop, or whistle. It’s a fricative or approximant.
– tchrist
Aug 08 '12 at 22:45
[r] in Québec; it is not common in France proper, where [ʁ] is standard.
– tchrist
Aug 09 '12 at 00:19
[ˈaɪɹ̩n]. – tchrist Aug 08 '12 at 14:48[ˈkʰwaɪɹ̩]. – tchrist Aug 08 '12 at 14:50