Why is Erik Satie's Saraband 1 in A flat major?

Question

There are so many F, C, and G flat accidentals through out the score it seem like it could have been notated in G sharp minor (enharmonic of A flat minor) with the tonic G sharp minor altered to be major at the beginning and end.

I get that altering the tonic chord would sort of contradict the key signature, but wouldn't the majority of the score then be much easier to read?

Maybe this is a sick joke from Satie, but his other scores don't seem to play musical enharomnic spelling jokes. His sense of humor came out in other ways.

https://imslp.org/wiki/3_Sarabandes_(Satie%2C_Erik)

Is there a source that clarifies A-flat major? IMSLP surprisingly has F minor listed (!). — Richard, Nov 06 '18 at 17:48
Oh, I see that at IMSLP now. But, I'm saying A flat major because of 4 flats signature and the start/end chords are A flat major seven chords. — Michael Curtis, Nov 06 '18 at 19:22
Wikipedia agrees with me ;-) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sarabandes#Music — Michael Curtis, Nov 06 '18 at 19:22

score 4 · Accepted Answer · answered Jul 12 '19 at 17:26

4

Because it is "a sick joke" about enharmonic spelling. For a more flagrant example, see Satie's Vexations.

answered Jul 12 '19 at 17:26

Camille Goudeseune

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If that is indeed the case, and if I made my own arrangement in G# minor, do you think it would be easier to read? I really would like to play this, but want something readable! Satie, why are you so cruel?!? :-) – Michael Curtis Jul 12 '19 at 17:49
3

Yes. The Peters edition of the W.T.C. even inflicts this on the C# pieces, renotating them in D flat at the back of the volume. – Camille Goudeseune Jul 12 '19 at 17:55

Why is Erik Satie's Saraband 1 in A flat major?

1 Answers1