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Why is "the present king of France is bald" considered false?

  1. Because "present" means "existing" so it's paradocixal.
  2. Because the concept of "the present king of France" has no referent.
  3. Another reason.
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    My choice is No. 2. – Jo Wehler Dec 08 '23 at 17:51
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    Because it's not true. Russell's motivation for treating "the present king of France is bald" as false is that he wants to retain bivalence. The sentence is not true, so it's false. Russell proposes to handle the sentence by treating it as a conjunction: There is a unique present king of France AND that person is bald. The first conjunct is false, so the whole proposition is false. Equally, "the present king of France is not bald" is false because it is the conjunction: There is a unique present king of France AND that person is not bald. – Bumble Dec 08 '23 at 18:12
  • "present means existence" is not paradoxical..it's just "wrong" (present is the (logical) opposite of existence(="eternity"="past+future"="ever not present")) ...2. Sounds like good guess.. (but in historical context (e.g.), we'd have to shift our perspective..)
  • – xerx593 Dec 08 '23 at 19:58
  • this book has a great introduction to philosophy and in particular propositions and their truth "Contemporary Metaphysics: An Introduction (Contemporary Philosophy)" by Michael Jubien – Richard Bamford Dec 08 '23 at 22:08
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA This is not at all the same question. Same subject, different question. – Speakpigeon Dec 09 '23 at 17:39
  • @Collins See my answer to your other question on the same subject: https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/105473/why-do-some-philosphers-including-russell-paraphrase-this-sentence/106136#106136 – Speakpigeon Dec 09 '23 at 18:08
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    @Speakpigeon - reopened. And the fact that you point at your previous answer shows that the question is duplicated:-) – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Dec 09 '23 at 18:17