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I know that the usage of the term declined in the Middle ages, but I was wondering, whether someone discussed this problem, perhaps referring to it as normlessness.

Philosophiser
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    Can you give some sources ? It seems that the concept of anomie has been introduced in 1893 by Émile Durkheim; if so, on what ground are you asserting that "the usage of the term declined in the Middle Ages" ? – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 01 '19 at 11:44
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    It seems to me that the only secondary source available is : Anomie and social theory in ancient Greece (1985). – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 01 '19 at 11:53
  • I think the "Medievals" you are looking for are more recent. Most explicitly in Catholicism, 19th and 20th Centuty. Integralism as a possible solution to the problem of anomie. Neo-Thomism. (Someone like Jacques Maritain, his career.). – Gordon Jan 01 '19 at 18:09
  • The idea is to direct ends (the proper ends of man) in a word with infinite possibilities (or they may seem infinite anyway). I could also mention N. Berdyaev and also the earlier Sobornost idea in Russia). An in Judaism, certain tensions that show up in contemporary Israel, the history of this is interesting and a huge topic in itself. – Gordon Jan 01 '19 at 18:13
  • You can even find "a return to the Medieval" in such movements as socialism and even certain elements of Compte's positivism. I thank both you and Mauro for giving me back this word "anomie". If the OP has an example of an earlier use, then please give an example. – Gordon Jan 01 '19 at 18:17
  • One other thing, so much of this ends up in personalism, but how it got there is a very interesting and complicated story. John Paul II considered Levinas to be a personalist. Wojtyla himself had his brand of personalism. Berdyaev and Maritain: personalism. Mounier: personalism. This personalism had a community aspect, but they were all slightly different. You could say that high hopes were reduced to personalism. I think these would definitely have norms under each tradition. – Gordon Jan 01 '19 at 18:50

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