I cannot find an explanation for the use of gerund + of, such as:
- planning of our future vacation;
- producing of sound; etc.,
—versus the same without of.
I prefer without of.
Which is correct?
I cannot find an explanation for the use of gerund + of, such as:
—versus the same without of.
I prefer without of.
Which is correct?
In answering your question it is helpful to start with an extract from the definition of gerund in The Oxford Dictionary of English Grammar (p178):
The noun-like and verb-like properties of the -ing form are on a cline.
Nouns are not followed by direct objects, so we cannot say:
*The planning my vacation (took a lot of time)
since planning in this case clearly functions as a noun by virtue of the inclusion of the determiner the. It needs to be followed by a prepositional complement:
The planning of my vacation (took a lot of time).
However, in the phrase:
Planning my vacation (took a lot of time).
planning takes on verb-like qualities, and hence can indeed be followed by a direct object. And of course verbs can be modified by adverbs, so you can say:
Carefully planning my vacation (took a lot of time).
In answer to OP's follow-on question in the comment: The definite article is typically used in front of a noun that is followed by a prepositional complement starting with of:
The cost of my vacation was very low.
*Cost of my vacation was very low.
The planning of my vacation took a long time.
*Planning of my vacation took a long time.
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There is a similar question here, with a much greater discussion of the relevant issues.