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As you know there are times when using a nationality (without any modification) is a correct way to refer to a person of that nationality and there are times when it is incorrect. For example "He is a German" vs. *"He is a French". Are there any rules for deciding if a nationality can be used as a noun?

Edwin Ashworth
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broccoli_soup
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  • Related: Why isn't USA an attributive adjective, (but US is)? – Tushar Raj Jun 08 '15 at 06:40
  • When there are alternative nouns (Englishman // Frenchman // Scotsman/Scot // Pole ...) the proper-adjective lookalike does not seem available. Essentially, a learner has to check on which usage/s are acceptable. – Edwin Ashworth Jun 08 '15 at 06:59
  • When a distinct noun form exists, we use it: Englishman, Dutchman, Italian, Portuguese, .... When not, the adjective may be used as a noun. (Oh! Just read Edwin's comment that seems to say quite the same thing.) – Kris Jun 08 '15 at 07:30
  • Please note, however: it should be Frenchman, not French in the question, so it's not an example case. – Kris Jun 08 '15 at 07:32
  • @Kris "He is a French" is an example of a case where it is incorrect to use nationality as a noun, I know it is wrong that's why I mentioned it in the question to illustrate that point. – broccoli_soup Jun 08 '15 at 08:03
  • “I'm Spanish” or “I'm a Spanish”? and Why isn't USA an attributive adjective, (but US is)? are obviously not the same question, since they are specific to those countries. – broccoli_soup Jun 08 '15 at 18:28

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There is no 100% hard-and-fast rule, but in general:

  • forms in -an (or -ian) are used freely as both adjectives and nouns (Germans / German people, Canadians / Canadian people, Africans / African people, etc.).
  • forms in -ese are used freely as adjectives, and somewhat freely as "substantives" (meaning noun-like adjective uses; e.g. "the Chinese" to refer to Chinese people in general), but not normally as ordinary nouns. (However, some speakers do use phrases like "a Japanese". Also, there exists a noun form "Chinaman", though I wouldn't recommend it nowadays.)
  • forms in -ish, and -ch are like forms in -ese, but with the added wrinkle that many of them have corresponding noun forms in -man, -woman, -men, -women (a Dutchman, an Irishwoman, two Englishmen, three Frenchwomen). Likewise "Scots" and "Manx". But on the other hand, many form corresponding nouns by removing the -ish (Swedes, Finns, Poles, Turks, Danes).
  • there are various forms that are only or primarily used as nouns. These are frequently colloquial and/or offensive (Jap, Kraut, Yankee, Limey, Russki).
  • there are also various other forms, such as "Greek", that are used both as adjectives and as nouns.
ruakh
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  • How does this answer the question? – Kris Jun 09 '15 at 05:35
  • @Kris: The question was "Are there any rules for deciding if a nationality can be used as a noun?" This answer answers it by . . . well, you can read it for yourself. :-) – ruakh Jun 09 '15 at 05:43
  • The Q is one thing, this answers quite another. Hope you do not need to re-read the two. – Kris Jun 09 '15 at 05:46
  • @Kris: I have absolutely no idea what you mean, but whatever. Have a nice day. – ruakh Jun 09 '15 at 06:13