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I am confused in the following questions:

If i were/was a rich man.

I was rich.

If i were a rich man sounds correct to me but were is used after plural

Please answer this question.

Abhilodha
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    Were is not plural; it's singular, but in the subjunctive mood, which indicates here a condition contrary to fact. You aren't rich, but if you were, then all day long you'd biddy biddy bum. – deadrat May 17 '16 at 07:34
  • “If there were” vs. “if there was” –  May 17 '16 at 08:00
  • This is a special use of "were" called the 'irrealis mood'. It has nothing to do with the past tense form "were" used with plural subjects. This "were" expresses a high degree of modality (remoteness from factuality) rather than tense. It's considered somewhat formal, and some speakers usually, if not always, use the modal preterite "was" instead. You'll also see this "were" given the ill-named term 'past subjunctive'. Note also that the meaning of this "was" (although a tense form), has to with modality, not time, hence the name 'modal preterite'. – BillJ May 17 '16 at 08:44

1 Answers1

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In Normal Scenario as per the Subject-Verb Agreement Rule Was is used with I.

The exception comes to this rule in the case of Imaginary Sentences.

Imaginary Sentences- When two imaginations come in a sentence which is either almost impossible or almost possible, the following three rules apply to make the sentence- enter image description here

Shashi Kumar Raja
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