” 'it' was him”. Why do we use 'it' when referring to a person by this object pronoun (him)?

Asked Jul 02 '21 at 15:54

Active Jul 02 '21 at 15:58

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Why do we use IT together with HIM? Isn't IT only for non-people?

edited Jul 02 '21 at 15:58

tchrist

asked Jul 02 '21 at 15:54

Lex Rex

Non-referential it and referential it are different words in French, which makes this easier. But then your pen and pencil will be of different genders. – Edwin Ashworth Jul 02 '21 at 16:13

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