One of my friends while writing a passage wrote the following sentence that contained both present progressive and present simple tense within a single sentence:
Road accidents are happening because people do not follow traffic rules. [Present progressive to present simple]
This very sentence was checked by an English tutor who didn't find anything wrong in it. I immediately thought that the above quoted sentence must be:
Road accidents happen because people do not follow traffic rules. [Both present simple]
I suppose while watching the news, we can say 'road accidents are happening across different parts of the country because people do not follow traffic rules'. Because incidents are happening currently, not from so long.
Overall, my question is that is it natural for a native speaker to shift from one progressive to simple within single sentence?
If we talk about tense shift , it is according thoughtco.com:
In English grammar, tense shift refers to the change from one verb tense to another (usually from past to present, or vice versa) within a sentence or paragraph.
This tells that we can change from past to present or vice versa; however that has not specified what I want here. My question is actually confided to one tense only, which is present. To further clarify my question, which of the following is more grammatical or idiomatic?
A. Road accidents are happening because people do not follow traffic rules.
B. Road accidents happen because people do not follow traffic rules.
I also didn't find any helpful results by googling this.
Or what do you say, if I substitute 'since' in place of 'because'? Such as:
C. Road accidents happen since people do not follow traffic rules.
This question was asked in my job test, and I was confused in selecting options; as I suspect that the question itself is fallible with wrong options, see Q. No. 15:
