#1
I have known this for 2 days.
The above sentence means
- "I got to know this 2 days ago" and/or "2 days have passed since I got known this".
Right? That looks and sounds clear to me.
#2 Another sentence:
I have lived in London for 2 years.
Let's assume that some time ago I lived in London, but now I live in a different city. Taking that into an account, which is the correct meaning below?
- (similar to example #1) "I started to live in London (for the first time) 2 years ago and now it has been 2 years since I started to live in London (for the first time)."
- (unlike the meaning of example #1) "The total amount of time I lived in London is 2 years."
It looks like (2) is correct here.
Above, I gave you 2 examples which have different meanings though they have the same grammar form. In those cases it was obvious to me which meaning was correct.
But how about this example?
#3
I have played this computer game for 3 years (I started playing it in the past and I finished playing it in the past).
- Is it (similar to example #1)
"3 years have passed since I played the game for the first time, until now" ? - Or is it (similar to example #2)
"3 years have passed since I started playing the game, until I finished playing it" ?
If (3.1) is correct, then how to change the sentence so it has the (3.2) meaning?
Otherwise, if (3.2) is correct, then how to change the sentence so it has the (3.1) meaning?